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Lesson 1 of 12 · Free

What counts as an alternative: the illiquidity premium, valuation smoothing and why reported volatility understates risk

Define alternative investments, understand where the illiquidity premium comes from, and unsmooth an appraisal-based return series to see the real volatility.

Author: Moustafa HijaziContent reviewed: 2026-10-305 min readSelf-study course

What you will learn

  • A practical definition of "alternative" and the four features that make an asset alternative
  • What the illiquidity premium is, why it exists and why it is not guaranteed
  • How appraisal-based valuations smooth returns and hide risk
  • How to unsmooth a return series with a simple formula and read the result

Explanation

An alternative investment is anything outside the three traditional, publicly traded categories: listed shares, bonds and cash. In practice the label covers private equity, venture capital, hedge funds, private credit, infrastructure, real assets such as farmland and timber, and collectibles. Real estate and commodities have their own courses on this site and appear here only inside alternative fund structures.

The label is less important than four features that most alternatives share:

  1. Illiquidity. You cannot sell at a price you can see on a screen today. Exit takes months or years, or depends on a fund manager's decision.
  2. Appraisal pricing. The value is estimated by the manager or a valuer, often quarterly, rather than set by trades.
  3. Manager dispersion. The gap between good and poor managers is far larger than between two ETFs tracking the same index, so manager selection is part of the return.
  4. Layered costs and complexity. Management fees, performance fees, fund expenses and sometimes a feeder fund on top.

The illiquidity premium

The illiquidity premium is the extra expected return an investor demands for giving up the right to sell quickly. The logic is simple: if two assets had identical cash flows but one was locked for ten years, nobody would buy the locked one without a discount, and a lower purchase price means a higher expected return. Academic estimates vary widely, so this course does not quote a number. A premium is only expected; a specific fund can still lose money, and when too much capital chases the same deals the premium can shrink to nothing.

A rule of thumb: only accept illiquidity for money you will not need for the full lock-up plus a buffer of two to three years, because private funds frequently extend beyond their planned life.

Valuation smoothing

Because private assets are valued by appraisal, reported values move slowly. A valuer anchors on the last valuation and adjusts partially toward new information. The result is a return series with high autocorrelation (this quarter's return is strongly related to last quarter's). Standard deviation calculated from such a series is too low, and correlation with listed markets is also understated.

A standard correction is the Geltner unsmoothing formula:

true return(t) = (observed(t) − a × observed(t−1)) / (1 − a)

where a is the first-order autocorrelation of the observed series. Higher a means heavier smoothing and a larger correction. For private equity and real estate funds, values of a between 0.4 and 0.7 are commonly estimated; treat any figure as an assumption, not a fact.

Worked example

Hypothetical example: a private fund reports these eight quarterly returns: +2%, +2%, +1%, −1%, −2%, +1%, +2%, +3%. Assume the autocorrelation a = 0.5.

Step 1 – reported volatility. The population standard deviation of the eight observed returns is 1.58% per quarter. Annualised (multiply by the square root of 4, which is 2): about 3.2% per year. That looks calmer than a bond fund.

Step 2 – unsmooth each quarter. From the second quarter onwards: (2 − 0.5 × 2) / 0.5 = 2.0%; (1 − 0.5 × 2) / 0.5 = 0.0%; (−1 − 0.5 × 1) / 0.5 = −3.0%; (−2 − 0.5 × (−1)) / 0.5 = −3.0%; (1 − 0.5 × (−2)) / 0.5 = +4.0%; (2 − 0.5 × 1) / 0.5 = +3.0%; (3 − 0.5 × 2) / 0.5 = +4.0%.

Step 3 – true volatility. The standard deviation of the seven unsmoothed returns is 2.83% per quarter, or about 5.7% per year. The estimated risk has roughly doubled, and the worst quarter is −3% instead of −2%.

Step 4 – what the premium must cover. Suppose a listed portfolio is expected to return 7% per year and the private fund 9.5% net, both hypothetical. On €100,000 over ten years that is €196,715 versus €247,823, a difference of about €51,100. That difference is the reward for accepting a ten-year lock-up, double the risk you first saw and the possibility that the manager underperforms. Fees are already inside the 9.5% here; taxes are excluded.

Common mistake

Comparing smoothed with unsmoothed numbersFund brochures often place a private fund's volatility next to a listed index's volatility on the same chart. The listed number comes from daily trades; the private number comes from quarterly appraisals. They are not the same kind of measurement. Always ask whether a return series has been unsmoothed before you compare risk, Sharpe ratios or correlations.

Practice activity

On paper: a fund reports quarterly returns of +3%, +1%, −2%, +2%. Assume a = 0.6. Unsmooth the last three quarters and compare the largest loss before and after.

Show solution

Q2: (1 − 0.6 × 3) / 0.4 = (1 − 1.8) / 0.4 = −2.0%. Q3: (−2 − 0.6 × 1) / 0.4 = −2.6 / 0.4 = −6.5%. Q4: (2 − 0.6 × (−2)) / 0.4 = 3.2 / 0.4 = +8.0%. The worst reported quarter was −2%; the worst unsmoothed quarter is −6.5%, more than three times larger.

Limitations: the formula assumes one fixed smoothing parameter and no genuine change in trend; real series need a longer history to estimate a reliably.

Key takeaways

  • Alternatives are defined less by the asset and more by illiquidity, appraisal pricing, manager dispersion and layered costs.
  • The illiquidity premium is an expected reward for locking money away; it is not guaranteed and can disappear when capital is abundant.
  • Appraisal smoothing makes reported volatility and correlation too low; unsmoothing can double the measured risk.
  • Only commit money you will not need for the lock-up plus a two-to-three-year buffer.

Next step

In the next lesson you will open the largest private-market category, private equity, and learn how buyouts, the J-curve and the fee waterfall work.

Self-check

Answer the questions, then check your answers. You can retry as often as you like.

1. Which statement best explains why appraisal-based returns understate risk?

2. A fund reports +4% last quarter and +1% this quarter. With a = 0.5, what is this quarter's unsmoothed return?

3. Which money is suitable for a private fund with a planned ten-year life?

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